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The transcription provides a series of test questions and answers related to various topics in biology and physiology. The questions cover topics such as the composition of the body, organelles within cells, cellular processes, embryonic tissues, and endocrine system. The answers provide concise explanations for each question. Test questions. Number 1. The body is made of mostly water. What fraction of this water is represented by the intracellular fluid space? A. One-third. B. Two-thirds. C. One-fourth. D. Three-fourths. Answer, B. The intracellular fluid space takes up two-thirds of the body's total water volume. Number 2. The cell holds a person's genetic makeup. Which organelle holds the genes of the cell? A. The Golgi apparatus. B. The mitochondria. C. The endoplasmic reticulum. D. The nucleus. Answer, D. The nucleus is the organelle that contains the cell's genes. Number 3. Which cellular organelle rewrites ribosomal RNA to create incomplete ribosomes? A. Nucleus. B. Nucleolus. C. Golgi apparatus. D. Ribosomes. Answer, B. The nucleolus has the ability to rewrite ribosomal RNA to create incomplete ribosomes. Number 4. By what means does water get through the cell membrane to enter the cell? A. Through an active transport protein. B. Through the movement of potassium outside the cells. C. Through osmosis. D. Through the energy created by ATP at the membrane level. Answer, C. Water uses osmosis to pass through the cell membrane. Number 5. Nerve cells are derived from what embryonic tissue type? A. Totipitin cells. B. Mesodermal cells. C. Ectodermal cells. D. Endodermal cells. Answer, C. Nerve cells come from the ectodermal embryonic tissue type. Number 6. What embryonic tissue type goes on to make only the muscle cells? A. Totipitin cells. B. Mesodermal cells. C. Ectodermal cells. D. Endodermal cells. Answer, B. Muscle cells are derived from embryonic mesodermal cells. Totipitin cells can make muscle, but make other cell types as well. Number 7. Which membranous tissue creates the lining of organs that are closed off from the outside? A. Connective tissue membrane. B. Synovial membrane. C. Mucous membrane. D. Serous membrane. Answer, D. Serous membrane tissue lines those organs that are closed off from the outside, such as the heart, lungs, and organs of the abdomen. Number 8. Which ionic chemical is at a high concentration in the cell and a low concentration out of the cell? A. Calcium. B. Magnesium. C. Hydrogen phosphate. D. Sodium. Answer, C. Hydrogen phosphate is the anion found in the highest concentration inside cells, but is found in low concentrations outside of the cells. Number 9. Which organelle of the cell is responsible for the creation of energy for the cell? A. Golgi apparatus. B. Endoplasmic reticulum. C. Nucleolus. D. Mitochondria. Answer, D. The mitochondria make ATP, which is the main source of cellular energy. Number 10. What physiological action occurs in a cell when the sodium-potassium pump is activated? A. Two sodium molecules leave the cell, and two potassium molecules enter the cell. B. Three sodium molecules leave the cell, and two potassium molecules enter the cell. C. One sodium molecule leaves the cell, and one potassium molecule enters the cell. D. Two sodium molecules leave the cell, and three potassium molecules enter the cell. Answer, B. Every time the sodium-potassium pump is activated, three sodium molecules leave the cell, and two potassium molecules go into the cell to have a net loss of water, so there isn't cellular engorgement with water. Number 11. Which of the following chemical reaction can be called an anabolic reaction? A. The making of fatty acids from fat. B. The making of amino acids from protein. C. The oxidative phosphorylation of glucose. D. The making of an enzyme from amino acids. Answer, D. Of the above answers, only the making of an enzyme from amino acids can be called an anabolic reaction. Number 12. Which chemical reaction creates the most energy in a cell? A. The making of adenosine triphosphate in the Krebs cycle. B. The making of fat from fatty acids. C. The making of glycogen from glucose. D. The making of DNA from nucleotides. Answer, A. Of the above chemical reactions, only the making of adenosine triphosphate, or ATP, in the Krebs cycle creates energy. Number 13. The doctor is seeing a patient who has thyrotoxicosis. What is expected to happen to the patient's basal metabolic rate? A. It will stay the same in the beginning and decrease over time. B. It will double over the normal basal metabolic rate. C. It will slightly increase the basal metabolic rate. D. It will decrease the metabolic rate by 40%. Answer, B. A patient with thyrotoxicosis has large increases in thyroid hormones, which will double the basal metabolic rate. Number 14. Which statement best describes the act of digestion? A. The body's ability to store fatty acids as fat. B. The body's ability to exercise to a greater degree. C. The body's ability to create glycogen. D. The body's ability to break down nutrients for energy or storage. Answer, D. Digestion can be described as the breaking down of nutrients for energy or storage. Number 15. Which patient can be expected to have a decreased basal metabolic rate compared to normal people? A. An individual with a fever. B. An individual who is 70 years old. C. An individual being in an ambient temperature of 2 degrees Fahrenheit. D. An individual who is a bodybuilder. Answer, B. Because the basal metabolic rate decreases with age, the elderly individual likely has the lowest metabolic rate. Number 16. The doctor is seeing a patient with myxedema. What is likely to occur with regard to the patient's basal metabolic rate? A. They would double their basal metabolic rate. B. They would slightly increase their basal metabolic rate. C. They would decrease their basal metabolic rate by 30 to 40 percent. D. They would decrease their metabolic rate by half. Answer, C. The patient with myxedema has a low thyroid hormone level, so they would have a decrease in their metabolic rate by 30 to 40 percent. Number 17. The post-absorptive phase of digestion involves what? A. The body puts glucose into glycogen for storage. B. Nutrients are absorbed from the diet. C. The body uses glycogen to make energy. D. The body uses energy for immediate needs. Answer, C. In the post-absorptive phase of digestion, no nutrients come into the body, so it needs to use glycogen or fat to use for purposes of making energy for the cells. Number 18. Which metabolic action is not performed under the influence of insulin? A. It stores fatty acids as fat. B. It creates glucose from glycogen. C. It allows amino acids to get into the cells. D. It allows glucose to get into the cells. Answer, B. Insulin performs many functions, but it does not create glucose from glycogen. Number 19. How does a person define the term basal metabolic rate? A. The number of calories expended after a meal. B. The number of calories used over a specific period of time while exercising. C. The number of calories necessary for the body to use over a specific period of time at rest. D. The number of calories it takes to raise a gram of water up one degree Celsius. Answer, C. The basal metabolic rate can be defined as number of calories used over a specific period of time at rest. Number 20. Why is the basal metabolic rate so high in children? A. They are growing and developing so they have a high calorie expenditure. B. They are more physically active. C. Their thyroid gland puts out more siroxan and triiodothyronine. D. They tend to eat more compared to their body weight. Answer, A. Children have a high metabolic rate because they are growing and developing, so they have a high expenditure of calories. Number 21. Which endocrine hormone controls the rise of calcium ions in the bloodstream? A. Siroxan. B. Triiodothyronine. C. Parasyroid hormone. D. Cortisol. Answer, C. The calcium ion concentration is under the influence of the parathyroid hormone. Number 22. Which endocrine hormone directly causes the secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone? A. Gonadotropin-releasing factor. B. Thyrotropin-releasing factor. C. Corticotropin-releasing factor. D. Adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone. Answer, B. Thyrotropin-releasing factor is the hormone secreted by the hypothalamus that causes the secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone by the pituitary gland. Number 23. Which of the following endocrine organs secretes oxytocin? A. The anterior pituitary gland. B. The hypothalamus. C. The posterior pituitary gland. D. The pancreas. Answer, C. The posterior pituitary gland secretes oxytocin. Number 24. Which of the following endocrine organs is responsible for the secretion of glucagon? A. Parathyroid gland. B. Hypothalamus. C. Adrenal gland. D. Pancreas. Answer, D. The pancreas secretes glucagon to regulate the metabolism of glucose. Number 25. Which endocrine system tissue creates the fight-or-flight response? A. The posterior pituitary gland. B. The anterior pituitary gland. C. The adrenal cortex. D. The adrenal medulla. Answer, D. The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine in the fight-or-flight response. Number 26. Which part of the endocrine system is directly suppressed when thyroxin levels are too high? A. The posterior pituitary gland. B. The anterior pituitary gland. C. The hypothalamus. D. The parathyroid gland. Answer, C. The hypothalamus is the gland suppressed when the thyroxin levels are elevated. Number 27. Which endocrine system tissue is also connected to the immune system? A. The thyroid gland. B. The adrenal medulla. C. The adrenal cortex. D. The hypothalamus. Answer, C. The adrenal cortex secretes cortisol, which is connected to the immune system. Number 28. Which endocrine system hormone is associated with cellular metabolism? A. Luteinizing hormone. B. Triiodothyronine. C. Glucagon. D. Growth hormone. Answer, B. Triiodothyronine is connected to the rate of cellular metabolism. Number 29. By what mechanism do the hormones from the hypothalamus reach the pituitary gland? A. These two glands are next to one another, so the hormone diffuses from one gland to the other. B. Through the release of the hormones into the bloodstream. C. Through the hypophysial portal system. D. The hypothalamus only affects the posterior pituitary gland. Answer, C. Hormones get to the anterior pituitary gland by being released by the hypothalamus and reaching the hypophysial portal system, which is connected on the other end to the anterior pituitary gland. Number 30. Which cranial nerve is directly associated with relaying sound to the brain? A. The cochlear nerve. B. The optic nerve. C. The vagus nerve. D. The olfactory nerve. Answer, A. The cochlear nerve provides the connection between the inner ear and the brain and is responsible for the sensation of hearing and sound. Number 31. Which brain structure is the largest aspect of the brain? A. The brain stem. B. The cerebellum. C. The midbrain. D. The cortex. Answer, B. The largest brain structure is the cerebellum. This is the cognitive portion of the brain. Number 32. Which brain structure is responsible for equilibration, coordination, balance, and sensory input? A. The brain stem. B. The forebrain. C. The cerebellum. D. The thalamus. Answer, C. The cerebellum is the second largest brain structure, is responsible for equilibrium, coordination, balance, and sensory input. Number 33. Which brain structure controls a person's heart rate, breathing, and many involuntary body functions? A. The brain stem. B. The cerebellum. C. The amygdala. D. The hypothalamus. Answer, A. The brain stem is located at the base of the heart and is responsible for heart rate, breathing, and many involuntary bodily functions. Number 34. Which type of brain-related condition involves having a severe headache on one side of the body and recurs in a pattern over several months or years? A. Cluster headaches. B. Migraine headaches. C. Epilepsy. D. Tension headaches. Answer, A. Cluster headaches cause severe headaches that occur repeatedly in a pattern repeatedly for several months or years. Number 35. The neurologist is seeing a 5-year-old child who has short periods of blanking out with no motor dysfunction or problems with motor dysfunction. What disorder does the child likely have? A. Tonic-clonic seizures. B. Myoclonus. C. Partial seizures. D. Absence seizures. Answer, D. This is a child who has absence seizures as seen by episodes of blanking out, suffering any motor dysfunction. Number 36. Which is the neurotransmitter used most often by nerves in the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Norepinephrine. B. Acetylcholine. C. Epinephrine. D. Serotonin. Answer, B. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used most often by the parasympathetic nervous system. Number 37. What is the effect on the eyes whenever the sympathetic nervous system is turned on? A. Color vision is enhanced. B. Near vision is enhanced. C. The pupils constrict. D. Far vision is enhanced. Answer, D. There is improved far vision by dilation of the pupils of the eyes when the sympathetic nervous system is turned on. Number 38. What is the endocrine effect on the pancreas when the sympathetic nervous system is predominant? A. Blood flow is maximized to the pancreas. B. Digestive enzymes are increased. C. Insulin production is enhanced. D. Blood flow to the pancreas is decreased. Answer, D. There is a decreased flow of blood to the pancreas because most of the flow of blood to the digestive system is decreased during the fight or flight response. Number 39. What is the main effect on the urinary bladder when the parasympathetic nervous system is predominant in the autonomic nervous system? A. There is an involuntary spasm of the bladder. B. There is an increased ability to urinate during parasympathetic stimulation. C. The bladder cannot contract. D. Blood flow to the bladder is decreased. Answer, B. There is an increase in the ability to urinate when the parasympathetic nervous system is predominant in the body. Number 40. What is part of the brain is considered part of the autonomic nervous system? A. Thalamus. B. Hippocampus. C. Brainstem. D. Amygdala. Answer, C. The brainstem is part of the autonomic nervous system and is one of the control centers of this system. Number 41. At what heart rate will the sinoatrial node beat if it has no input from other factors? A. 60 beats per minute. B. 80 beats per minute. C. 100 beats per minute. D. 120 beats per minute. Answer, C. Without any input from outside factors, the sinoatrial node will beat at 100 beats per minute. Number 42. What is the difference between cardiac muscle fibers and ordinary cells? A. Cardiac muscle fibers are larger than ordinary cells. B. Cardiac muscle fibers have calcium channels on the cell membrane. C. Cardiac muscle fibers are thicker than ordinary cells. D. Cardiac muscle fibers can react to electrical stimuli and ordinary cells cannot. Answer, D. Cardiac muscle fibers have the ability to react to electrical stimuli and ordinary cells cannot. Number 43. Which of the four heart valves prevent backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium? A. Tricuspid valve. B. Pulmonic valve. C. Mitral valve. D. Aortic valve. Answer, A. The tricuspid valve is one of the four valves of the heart and it functions to prevent backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium. Number 44. Which of the four valves of the heart opens to let blood flow into the left ventricle during systole? A. Tricuspid valve. B. Pulmonic valve. C. Mitral valve. D. Aortic valve. Answer, D. The aortic valve is one of the four valves of the heart that opens to let blood flow out of the left ventricle during systole. Number 45. What is the highest possible heart rate the heart can do without decompensating? A. 150 beats per minute. B. 190 beats per minute. C. 200 beats per minute. D. 220 beats per minute. Answer, D. The highest possible heart rate without decompensation is 220 beats per minute. Number 46. Which environmental or physiologic factor does not alter the heart rate? A. Body weight. B. Exercise. C. Limbic system. D. Baroreceptors. Answer, A. Of the above answers, only body weight does not directly alter the heart rate. Number 47. What aspect of the electrocardiogram is seen because of ventricular systole? A. The P wave. B. The PR interval. C. The QRS complex. D. The Q wave. Answer, C. The QRS complex is seen on the electrocardiogram because of ventricular systole. Number 48. Which cell type is not manufactured by the bone marrow stem cell? A. Erythrocyte. B. Basophil. C. Eosinophil. D. Epithelial cell. Answer, D. An epithelial cell is not manufactured by a bone marrow stem cell. The other cells are blood cells, which are manufactured by the bone marrow stem cells. Number 49. Which bone marrow disease results in fewer blood cells in the peripheral circulation? A. Polycythemia vera. B. Acute myelogenous leukemia. C. Idiopathic myelofibrosis. D. Essential thrombocytosis. Answer, C. In idiopathic myelofibrosis, there is extensive fibrosis in the bone marrow, and it doesn't put out as many red blood cells or white blood cells as it could. Number 50. Which immunoglobulin type can cross the placenta and is excreted in human milk? A. IgA. B. IgG. C. IgE. D. IgM. Answer, B. The IgG antibody provides passive immunity to the infant by crossing the placenta and by being excreted in human milk. Number 51. A lack of exposure to bacteria and viruses early in life can result in what type of disease? A. Acute myelogenous leukemia. B. Myelodysplasia. C. DeGeorge syndrome. D. Type 1 diabetes. Answer, D. Type 1 diabetes and other autoimmune disorders are believed to be secondary to a lack of exposure to viruses and bacteria early in life. Number 52. How does the use of chemotherapeutic medications adversely affect the immune system? A. It kills off the bone marrow so no immune cells can be made. B. It kills rapidly dividing cells, including immune cells that rapidly divide. C. It blocks the antibody response so patients have a higher chance of infection. D. It interferes with protein metabolism so that antibodies can be manufactured. Answer, B. Chemotherapeutic medication kills rapidly dividing cells and immune cells tend to rapidly divide so they are adversely affected by giving these drugs. Number 53. What is the type of allergic reaction that is considered the most dangerous to have? A. Allergic rhinitis. B. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. C. Anaphylaxis. D. Status asthmaticus. Answer, C. Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening type of allergic reaction and is the most dangerous type of allergy. Number 54. How do individuals suffering from infectious mononucleosis have transient immune deficiency? A. Their T-cell count decreases as a result of the infection. B. Their B-cell count decreases as a result of the infection. C. Their B-cells become infected and the T-cells attack them. D. They cannot make antibodies to the Epstein-Barr virus. Answer, C. Patients with infectious mononucleosis have a transient immune deficiency because their B-cells are infected and the T-cells attack them. Number 55. Which is the digestive enzyme secreted by cells in the mouth? A. Protease. B. Amylase. C. Pepsin. D. Cholecystokinin. Answer, B. The only digestive enzyme secreted by the cells in the mouth is amylase. Number 56. How are the stomach cells protected from damage by the hydrochloric acid it produces? A. The cells have a hard cell wall that repels acid. B. The epithelial cells secrete an enzyme that deactivates hydrochloric acid. C. The epithelial cells have receptors that block hydrochloric acid. D. The goblet cells secrete mucus that protects the cells from hydrochloric acid. Answer, D. The stomach is protected from hydrochloric acid because the goblet cells produce mucus that protects the stomach lining cells. Number 57. What aspect of the central or peripheral nervous system is responsible for most of the digestive function? A. The hypothalamic pituitary axis. B. The brain stem. C. The parasympathetic nervous system. D. The sympathetic nervous system. Answer, C. Much of the digestive system is regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system. Number 58. What structure in the digestive system is responsible for the secretion of intrinsic factor? A. The mouth. B. The stomach. C. The small intestine. D. The colon. Answer, B. There are a few cells in the stomach that secrete intrinsic factor, which is used to aid in the absorption of vitamin B12. Number 59. The pancreas has both endocrine and exocrine functions. What is its primary endocrine function? A. To make and secrete trypsinogen. B. To make and secrete chymotrypsinogen. C. To make and secrete pepsinogen. D. To make and secrete insulin. Answer, D. The other answers include digestive enzymes, which are not related to endocrine function. The correct answer is insulin, which is a major endocrine function of the pancreas. Number 60. What aspect of the small intestine allows it to absorb the most number of nutrients? A. Its long length allows nutrients to be absorbed throughout the small intestine. B. Its lining has large fenestrations that allow molecules of every size to enter the bloodstream. C. The lining contains villi and microvilli that increase its absorptive surface. D. The liver secretes bile that activates enzymes, which aid in nutrient absorption. Answer, C. The small intestine can absorb large amounts of nutrients because the epithelial lining contains villi and microvilli that increase its surface area, maximizing absorption. Number 61. What part of the body controls glycogenolysis? A. Mouth. B. Liver. C. Stomach. D. Colon. Answer, B. Glycogenolysis, or the breakdown of glycogen, happens in the cells of the liver. Number 62. How is the pH of stomach contents neutralized or deactivated in the duodenum? A. Duodenal cells secrete enzymes that neutralize hydrochloric acid. B. The hepatocytes secrete bile that neutralizes hydrochloric acid. C. The pancreas secretes bicarbonate ions that neutralize hydrochloric acid. D. The stomach contents absorb hydrochloric acid, so it doesn't affect the duodenum. Answer, C. The pancreas has the ability to excrete bicarbonate ions that neutralize hydrochloric acid. Number 63. What part of the menstrual cycle signals the beginning of the menstrual cycle? A. Menstrual flow. B. Follicular phase. C. Ovulation. D. Luteal phase. Answer, A. The first part of the menstrual cycle is the menstrual flow, which is referred to as Day 1 of the menstrual cycle. Number 64. Which hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum during the last half of the menstrual cycle? A. Luteinizing hormone. B. Human gonadotropin-releasing hormone. C. Progesterone. D. Estrogen. Answer, C. The last half of the menstrual cycle is marked by secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum. Number 65. Which hormone triggers ovulation in females? A. Human chorionic gonadotropin. B. Luteinizing hormone. C. Follicle-stimulating hormone. D. Progesterone. Answer, B. There is a marked increase of luteinizing hormone that causes the egg in the ovaries to be released at the time of ovulation. Number 66. How does human chorionic gonadotropin, HCG, function in the reproductive system to allow the corpus luteum to keep putting out progesterone? A. It binds to HCG receptors on the corpus luteum, preventing cell death. B. It inhibits luteinizing hormone so the corpus luteum isn't reabsorbed. C. It inhibits progesterone so that the corpus luteum is triggered to make more progesterone. D. It is structurally similar to luteinizing hormone, so it prevents reabsorption of the corpus luteum. Answer, D. HCG is structurally similar to luteinizing hormone, so it prevents reabsorption of the corpus luteum so it continues to put out progesterone. Number 67. What does the dartus muscle do? A. It propels sperm through the urethra. B. It propels sperm through the vas deferens. C. It regulates the temperature of the testes. D. It helps hold up the testes. Answer, C. The dartus muscle can contract and relax involuntarily to control the temperature of the testes. Number 68. Which male reproductive organ makes most of the seminal fluid in males? A. Prostate gland. B. Testes. C. Bulbourethral glands. D. Seminal vesicles. Answer, D. The seminal vesicles contribute to 65 to 75 percent of seminal fluid. Number 69. Which body organ produces fructose to nourish the sperm cells? A. Prostate gland. B. Seminal vesicles. C. Bulbourethral glands. D. Vas deferens. Answer, B. The seminal vesicle produces fructose, which nourish the sperm cells during ejaculation. Number 70. Which organ of the body is where the sperm cells mature? A. Testes. B. Epididymis. C. Prostate gland. D. Seminal vesicles. Answer, B. The epididymis is the part of body and is where sperm cells mature. Number 71. Which of these things can't be found in cancellous bone? A. Bone marrow. B. Connective tissue. C. Cartilage. D. Calcium. Answer, C. Cancellous bone contains bone marrow and connective tissue and contains calcium. Cartilage is not a substance found in cancellous bone. Number 72. Which of the following bones of the body is not considered movable? A. Vertebral body. B. Cranium. C. Metacarpals. D. Radius. Answer, B. All the above answers are bones that can move except for cranial bones. Number 73. What is the main reason a person develops osteoporosis? A. Women do not take in enough calcium. B. Women do not take in enough vitamin D. C. Women are less active in their later years. D. Osteoclast activity is faster than osteoblast activity. Answer, D. Osteoporosis is the result of differences in the activity of the osteoclasts and osteoblasts that happens particularly in women as they age. Number 74. What physical or environmental factor is not considered a risk factor for osteoporosis? A. Smoking cigarettes. B. Exercise. C. Drinking alcohol. D. Being of thin body build. Answer, B. Exercise can treat men and women with osteoporosis and is not a risk factor for the disease. Number 75. Which of the following medications can a woman take to build bone back in osteoporotic bones? A. Olendronate. B. Ebandronate. C. Resendronate. D. None of the above. Answer, D. There are no drugs that can build back lost bone. All drugs listed just prevent further loss of bone. Number 76. Which aspect of the joint structure makes lubricant to facilitate joint movement? A. Bursa. B. Tendon. C. Synovial membrane. D. Cartilage. Answer, C. The synovial membrane makes a type of lubricant that aids in the movement of the joint. Number 77. What aspect of joints has the function of keeping the muscles from rubbing up against bone? A. Synovial membrane. B. Bursa. C. Cartilage. D. Ligament. Answer, B. The bursa is part of the muscle that supports the joint. Answer, C. The bursa is part of the muscles that keep them from rubbing up against bone or muscles from rubbing against one another. Number 78. How does cartilage turn into bone in the process of ossification? A. There is an increase in osteoclast activity. B. Osteoblasts turn cartilage cells into bone cells. C. Cartilage cells begin to take on calcium phosphate salts. D. Osteoblasts add bone tissue on top of cartilage, interfering with the circulation to cartilage. Answer, C. Ossification starts when cartilage cells begin to take on calcium phosphate salts. Number 79. Which of these bones is not considered an appendicular bone? A. Femur. B. Humerus. C. Vertebra. D. Radius. Answer, C. The vertebrae are all considered axial bones because they help hold the body together. Number 80. Which of the following bones of the body is considered to be the strongest? A. Humerus. B. Tibia. C. Vertebra. D. Femur. Answer, D. The femur is considered the strongest bone in the body. It holds much of the weight of the body. Number 81. The patient is seen by the doctor following an overdose of barbiturates. What acid-base abnormality would be suspected? A. Respiratory acidosis. B. Respiratory alkalosis. C. Metabolic acidosis. D. Metabolic alkalosis. Answer, A. The patient is likely not breathing enough from the sedative overdose and is holding on to carbon dioxide, causing respiratory acidosis. Number 82. The patient is seen in the emergency room and is a type 1 diabetic who ran out of insulin several days ago and presents to the emergency room. What type of acid-base abnormality does the patient likely have? A. Respiratory acidosis. B. Respiratory alkalosis. C. Metabolic acidosis. D. Metabolic alkalosis. Answer, C. The patient is an out-of-control diabetic who probably has diabetic ketoacidosis and has elevated ketone bodies, which are acidic in the bloodstream. The patient has metabolic acidosis. Number 83. The patient is suffering from high-altitude sickness. What acid-base disorder would be suspected? A. Respiratory acidosis. B. Respiratory alkalosis. C. Metabolic acidosis. D. Metabolic alkalosis. Answer, B. High altitude can cause faster breathing to obtain more oxygen. This causes an excess of carbon dioxide to be given off by the lungs, resulting in metabolic alkalosis. Number 84. The patient is seen in the emergency room because of overuse of diuretic pills to lose weight. What acid-base disorder do you suspect? A. Respiratory acidosis. B. Respiratory alkalosis. C. Metabolic acidosis. D. Metabolic alkalosis. Answer, D. The patient with excessive diuretic use is excreting large amounts of potassium. And the kidneys are reabsorbing bicarbonate, so the patient is suffering from metabolic alkalosis. Number 85. The patient is seen in the emergency room after hyperventilating from a panic attack and has a blood pH of 7.5. What is the best way to manage this patient? A. Intravenous fluids and electrolytes. A. Intravenous fluids and electrolytes. B. Mechanical ventilation. C. Breathing into a paper bag. D. Intravenous dilute acid. Answer, C. The patient with hyperventilation has respiratory alkalosis and can be managed by breathing into a paper bag and can re-breathe their carbon dioxide, reversing the condition. Number 86. What is the most severe complication of metabolic alkalosis? A. Electrolyte imbalance. B. Kidney failure. C. Hyperventilation. D. Tetany. Answer, D. The most severe complication of metabolic alkalosis is tetany. Number 87. What is one reason why acidosis and alkalosis is so dangerous? A. It can result in kidney failure. B. It can result in liver failure. C. It causes protein denaturation. D. It can cause irreversible brain injury. Answer, C. Acidosis and alkalosis are so dangerous because it causes protein denaturation. Number 88. What respiratory acidic substance contributes to acid-base balance? A. Carbon dioxide. B. Sodium bicarbonate. A. Carbon dioxide. B. Sodium nitrate. C. Bicarbonate. D. Carbonic acid. Answer, A. Carbon dioxide is the only respiratory acid that causes an acid-base balance imbalance, if ventilation is too great or too little. Number 89. Besides renal compensation and respiratory compensation, what other thing in the body can help prevent pH differences in the body? A. Gastrointestinal secretion of hydrochloric acid. B. Liver metabolism of organic acids. C. Bicarbonate buffer system. D. Adrenal secretion of epinephrine. Answer, C. The bicarbonate buffer system is one of three buffer systems available for the management of acid-base disorders. Number 90. What acid-base disorder can happen if a person engages in prolonged excessive exercise? A. Metabolic acidosis. B. Metabolic alkalosis. Answer, C. Respiratory acidosis. D. Respiratory alkalosis. Answer, A. Prolonged excessive exercise can cause metabolic acidosis because of a buildup of lactic acid. Number 91. Which hormone excreted from the kidneys affects red blood cell production? A. Renin. B. Angiotensin. C. Erythropoietin. D. Aldosterone. Answer, C. The kidneys secrete erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production when there is a low hemoglobin level. Number 92. How do the kidneys participate in acid-base balance? A. They reabsorb hydrogen ions, increasing the acidity of the blood. B. They regulate bicarbonate absorption, depending on the pH of the blood. C. They increase water absorption if the pH is too high. D. They respond to aldosterone when the pH is low and increase bicarbonate excretion. Answer, B. The pH balance in the kidneys is regulated by the absorption of bicarbonate, which is an alkaline substance. When the pH is low, bicarbonate reabsorption is high, and when the pH is high, bicarbonate reabsorption is low. Number 93. How do the kidneys respond when a person has prolonged hypertension? A. More sodium is reabsorbed by the kidneys. B. More glucose is excreted by the kidneys. C. The urine becomes cloudy. D. The GFR decreases. Answer, D. Prolonged hypertension can cause a reduction in renal function, as evidenced by a low GFR. Number 94. Which is the best test to detect chronic kidney failure? A. Creatinine in the blood. B. Blood urea nitrogen level in the blood. C. Glomerular filtration rate. D. Creatinine in the urine. Answer, C. The glomerular filtration rate is the best test to detect chronic renal failure. It decreases as the kidneys start to fail, and goes lower and lower with worsening kidney failure. Number 95. How is bicarbonate taken back into the body by the kidneys through reabsorption? A. Through active transport in the sick ascending tubules. B. Through passive transport in the loop of Henle. C. It is not reabsorbed by the kidneys. D. It is reabsorbed through a series of chemical reactions. Answer, D. Bicarbonate cannot be directly absorbed by the kidneys because it has no transporter, so it needs to be taken up through a series of chemical reactions. Number 96. A urine specimen is given that has a high nitrite level on the stick and a high leukocyte esterase level on the stick. A. Acute renal failure. B. Urinary tract infection. C. Kidney stones. D. Chronic renal failure. Answer, B. A positive nitrite level and a positive leukocyte esterase level can be seen if the patient has a urinary tract infection. Number 97. The urine dipstick shows a normal specific gravity, negative bilirubin, negative protein, positive ketones, positive glucose, negative nitrites, acidic urine, and negative leukocyte esterase. What medical disorder is suspected? A. A severe urinary tract infection. B. Negative leukocyte esterase. What medical disorder is suspected? A. Acute renal failure. B. Urinary tract infection. C. Hypoglycemia. D. Diabetic ketoacidosis. Answer, D. The patient has acidic urine with glucose and ketones spilling out in the urine. This means the patient has diabetic ketoacidosis. Number 98. Urine is tested and indicates a positive human chorionic gonadotropin level. What condition can be identified by this urine test? A. Diabetic ketoacidosis. B. Hypertension. C. Pregnancy. D. Acute renal insufficiency. Answer, C. Human chorionic gonadotropin, or HCG, is a measure of pregnancy. Any amount of HCG in the urine is a likely indicator of pregnancy. Number 99. What is the function of aldosterone in the body? A. It stimulates passive absorption of water. B. It allows for active transport of potassium in the tubules. C. It stimulates phosphate reabsorption and calcium excretion. D. It stimulates water and sodium reabsorption. Answer, D. Aldosterone maximizes the active reabsorption of water and sodium by the kidneys. Number 100. What is the function of antidiuretic hormone in the body? A. It stimulates the active reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys. B. It stimulates passive transport of water in the kidneys. C. It stimulates the active transport of sodium and water in the tubules. D. It increases water excretion by the kidneys. Answer, B. Antidiuretic hormone acts on the kidneys to cause the passive transport of water in the kidneys.
